Well hello everyone. For this article I will be giving my opinion of the KJV-Only issue. I will also be listing a few verses that I find may be problematic for those who hold to the KJV-only belief system. Let's begin.
If you have been reading my post for some time you probably could guess that I am a big fan of the KJ Bible, and it's true that I pretty much only read the KJV for my daily devotions. I wouldn't however label myself a KJV-onlyist because I believe that God's word is also in other language (including the languages they were orginally written in; Greek and Hebrew). I also presume that bible versions that were made prior to the late 1800's such as the great bible and the bishop bible ect, are also great translations and also could be used as a daily reader.
Am I against KJV-onlyism? Well for the first decade and a half of my Christian walk (and shortly after I heard about the issue) I sided with the belief that the KJV has no errors and is a 100% perfectly translated version. But in the last 3 to 5 years or so, when a relative asked me something along the lines of would it shake my faith if the KJV wasn't a perfect translation. I have to admit somewhere between a brief moment to a day or two, I though it might. But I have come to the decision that the doctrine of preservation could still be intact even if the KJV wasn't the perfect word of God in the English languge, God's word could still exist on earth in the thousands of manuscript's written in multiple languages. After all they line up with incredible accuracy and there are not that many different readings in the passages that do deviate from one another. Even though Im not entirely certain that the KJV is error free, I still have supreme confidence in this translations.
For those of you who hold that the KJV is a perfect bible (I desire to justify your belief), please consider the following passages and see if you can explain away the issue (Other than saying "I don't know brother, its just a mystery).
1. Genesis 29:17
(Omits Hebrew word for figure, form, or visage)
2. Exodus 20:14 "Thou Shall Commit Adultery"
A 1631 KJV misprint.
3. Exodus 22:28
This passage says not to revile the gods. We know in John 10 that Jesus and Psalm 82 that gods there meant judges or perhaps the watchers. The little gods doctrine of the word of Faith doctrine is heresy, but i digress. Why would the bible tell us not to revile the gods if it was refering to false gods? Elijah mocked the prophets of Baal and he was indeed a true prophet.
4. Num 11:25
May not be a mistranslation here but I invite my readers to examine the passage and see if you can explain to me what it meant that they did not cease to prophesy.
5. Deuteronomy 32:8
How can God divide unto the nations according to the children of Israel if the nation of Israel hadn't been born yet?
6. Joshua 6:24
(Brass supposedly not yet invented until 330 B.C), supposed to be bronze?
7. Jer 31:34 "Sin on more..."
KJV 1716 edition.
8.Jer 38:16 (1611 vs modern)
"So the king sware secretly" vs "So Zedekiah the king sware secretly".
9.Jer 49:1 (1611 vs modern)
"Why then doth their king inherit God" vs "Why then doth their king inherit Gad".
10. Mark 7:27 "Let the children first be killed"
London issued 1795 KJV.
11.1 Tim 1:4 (1611 vs modern)
"rather than edifying" vs "rather than godly edifying".
With all that said I still think the KJV is the best translation out there and still highly recommend it to everyone, I still think that it is the best piece of litature out there and consider it the living word of God for the English language.
Thanks for reading, Please Share.
