Hello again viewers for today's article I want to challenge those who hold to the doctrine of Modelism, which is the idea that God isn't 3 persons but just 1 person. Please read through the following questions and see if they make sense under your theological view. If not, please consider rethinking the Godhead.
- Why are there so many verses in the New Testament (especially the Pauline epistles) that mention God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ in the Same verse?
- Who was God talking to when he said Let us make man in our image?
- Why did Jesus say we shall make ourselves known unto him, when referring to himself and the Father?
- How is blasphemy against the Spirit different in any meaningful way if the Spirit, Son, and Father are exactly the same? Why is the punishment greater for this particular blasphemy?
- How can the Father know the day but not the Son?
- How is it the Father judges no man but gives all Judgment to the Son?
- How can Jesus be subject to the Father in 1 Cor 15 if they are the same person?
- Why at Jesus' baptism did it appear that there where 3 distinct entities were there?
- How come the bible says Jesus is at the right hand of the Father and that he intercedes for us?
- How come Jesus stated that he seek not his own will but the Father?
- How come Jesus identifies himself and the Father as two witnesses in John 8?
- How come it says the Word was with God, and that Jesus had glory with the father?
- How come Jesus tells the sons of thunder it's not his to give when referring to granting who will sit with him when he comes in his glory?
- The bible says that (in regards to being made an high priest) that no man taketh that honour unto himself and that Christ did not glorify himself to be made a high priest. It was God that made him the high priest. Sooooo.
- How does God give and take from himself?
Thanks for Reading Please Share!!!
for Relevant verses see link below.
https://youmustbebornfromabove.blogspot.com/2018/11/problems-with-hypothesis-of-modalism.html#more
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